Answer:
B. Infinite
Explanation:
Given that:
[tex]y=\cos ^{-1}(0)[/tex]
This implies that:
[tex]\cos (y)=0[/tex]
From the graph of f(x)=cos(x), we observe that:
[tex]\cos (x)=0\text{ for }x=\frac{\pi}{2}+k\pi\text{ for any }k\in\Z,\text{ }\Z\text{ being the set of integers}[/tex]
Therefore, there are infinitely possible values of y.
