I only see one question here...
If [tex]y=f(x)[/tex] is a one-to-one function, then it has an inverse such that [tex]f^{-1}(y)=x[/tex]. This means that [tex]f^{-1}(f(x))=x[/tex].
According to the table, [tex]f(1)=-2[/tex]. So by definition of the inverse, we have
[tex]f(1)=-2\implies f^{-1}(f(1))=f^{-1}(-2)\implies\boxed{1=f^{-1}(-2)}[/tex]
so the answer is either B or D (they're both the same...)
